I have some Journal entries in my accounts which (realized this later) need to have Purchase invoices against them, so the Accounts Payable report for the suppliers who actually received money (and which are linked to those Journal entries) can be balanced.
Now to do this u need the ADVANCE PAYMENT in the Invoice created in retrospect. But the system won’t allow manually add any line to the Purchase Invoice Advance Child table manually.
The reason is that all field in the Child Table DocType are marked read-only. As you are not allowed to change that via customize Form you can regard the statement "it is impossible to use a Journal Entry as an Advance Payment" to be TRUE I guess.
Can anyone explain to me what is the business logic being this restriction? If there is none, or not strong arguments for this I’d challenge this default behaviour to be changed.
I am aware of the workarounds (cancelling the JV, submit Invoice, Amend the JV with reference to that invoice and re-submit). It is a general question.
You could try capturing the Purchase Invoices for the supplier concerned, then use the Match Payments with Invoices to allocate the payment against the invoices.
In the Payments table, click the Invoice Number field. It will drop down. Select the particular invoice you wish to allocate against the payment. System will display the amount (or balance) of the invoice in the Allocated amount field.
Click Reconcile button to knock out the invoice.
Repeat the process for the next invoice, if you have more invoices to allocate against such payments.
I am aware of that. Actually that is my starting point of this Topic.
The question is whether there is any strong business intelligence or best practice reason for Journal Entries not be allowed as Advance payments (you practically can not chose them)
Can you explain the business logic behind making it necessarry to require an “is advance” checkbox to be set to TRUE in the Journal entry if you want to use it as advance payment?
Slightly different case, but probably similar cause. Prepaid a supplier for items not fully shipped so have an unapplied balance with that supplier. Supplier sent payment for excess received. ERPnext payment entry will not allow applying the payment entry to the matching balance in supplier account.
Matching a payment with a payment sounds strange, but should work. Not sure what to do know as if a Purchase Invoice is created as recommended the supplier money return will be applied to it and the overpayment with the supplier will continue. Only option we see is creating 2 Purchase Invoice, which offset so that each payment can be applied to the PI and PI credit. Seems like a lot of unnecessary transactions to do a match.
True. This happens A LOT in Nigeria. The parties may not always reconcile the accounts via Debit/Credit Notes. A lot of times, they prefer refunds or partial refunds.